CLAT Mock Test 2025

CLAT mock tests help to evaluate your preparation, improve time management and strengthen weak areas. Leverage the free CLAT Mock Tests and CLAT Test Series to enhance your problem-solving speed and accuracy. Start your practice and increase your chances of securing a top rank!

What is CLAT Exam

The Common Law Admission Test, in short CLAT, is the national level entrance examination for admission in undergraduate and postgraduate law courses conducted by 22 NLUs in India. CLAT is also one of the most competitive law entrance examinations undertaken by thousands every year. In this article, we will discuss the CLAT mock test and give you actual passages for every section so that you can have a proper idea about the sections. For more information and in case you wish to take the CLAT mock test, a link is provided below for your convenience.

CLAT Exam Highlights

Aspect	Details
Conducting Body	Consortium of National Law Universities
Exam Type	National-level, conducted online (Computer-based Test)
Eligibility	10+2 or equivalent with at least 45% (40% for SC/ST)
Duration	2 hours (120 minutes)
Number of Questions	120 (for UG CLAT)
Sections Covered	English Language, Current Affairs, Legal Reasoning, Logical Reasoning, Quantitative Techniques
Marking Scheme	+1 for each correct answer, -0.25 for each incorrect answer
Purpose	Admission to NLUs and other law schools accepting CLAT scores

Importance of CLAT Mock Tests and Sectional Weightage

CLAT Mock tests are essential tools for aspirants preparing for the CLAT exam. They help simulate the exam environment, providing a real-time experience of attempting the exam under time pressure, allowing students to gauge their preparation level, and helping them refine strategies for better results.

Subjects	Number of Questions	Weightage (%)
Current Affairs & General Knowledge	35-39	25%
English Language	28-32	20%
Logical Reasoning	28-32	20%
Quantitative Techniques	13-17	10%
Legal Reasoning	35-39	25%
Total	120 questions	120 marks

Key Benefits of CLAT Mock Test 2025

Benefit	Description
Familiarity with Exam Pattern	Free CLAT Mock Test 2025 mimic the actual exam, helping aspirants get used to the format and types of questions.
Time Management Skills	Aspirants can practice solving questions within the limited time available, improving speed and accuracy.
Identify Weak Areas	CLAT Mock Test 2025 help pinpoint areas where a candidate is struggling, allowing focused improvement.
Boosts Confidence	Regular practice helps reduce anxiety and boosts confidence, making aspirants feel more prepared.
Refining Exam Strategy	It allows aspirants to experiment with different strategies, such as which sections to tackle first.

CLAT Mock Test vs. Real Exam Comparison

Aspect	CLAT Mock Test	CLAT Real Exam
Environment	Simulated practice conditions	Actual exam with real-time pressure
Time Pressure	Allows for multiple attempts and practice	Single attempt with strict time management
Learning Opportunity	Can review answers and improve	No post-exam review, but score determines admission
Stress Factor	Lesser stress, helps in mental preparation	High stakes, adds pressure

How to Improve with CLAT Mock Tests

Step	Description
Analyze Performance	After eachCLAT Mock Test 2025, analyze the answers, especially incorrect ones, to understand mistakes.
Track Progress	Keep a record of your mock test scores to track improvements and identify consistent weak areas.
Simulate Exam Conditions	Take the CLAT Mock Test 2025 in a quiet environment, without distractions, to replicate real exam conditions.
Time Management	Focus on solving questions within the time limits of each section to develop an effective time management strategy.
Sectional Focus	Take sectional mock tests to improve specific areas like Legal Reasoning or Quantitative Techniques.

Real Exam Passages of CLAT Mock Test

1. English Language

In this section of the UG-CLAT 2025, you will be given passages of approximately 450 words each. These passages will be taken from modern or historically important works of fiction and non-fiction. They will be at a reading level suitable for a 12th-grade student, and should take about 5 to 7 minutes to read.

Key Focus Areas	Description
Comprehension Passages	Questions based on reading and understanding passages.
Vocabulary	Synonyms, antonyms, meanings of words in context.
Grammar	Sentence correction, error spotting, and fill-in-the-blanks.

Preparation Tips:

Read editorials and articles to improve reading speed and comprehension.
Focus on learning new vocabulary every day.
Practice grammar exercises from previous years' CLAT papers.

English Language Passage From Previous Exam

The Crisis of Justice

The crisis of justice that is the subject matter of discussion in the media today is, in fact, the crisis of “justice for the middle class.” The main difference between India and the OECD (Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development) countries is that whereas the middle class in these countries has reasonable access to justice, in India, it does not. A vocal and powerful middle class has emerged in India since 1991. It is demanding reasonable access to justice. Much of the judicial reform effort will help meet this demand.

The question of justice for the poor is, however, an altogether different challenge. No country in the world has been able to secure justice for the poor. Most of the jails of the richest countries are filled with the poorest. The “masses” are more often victims of the criminal justice system than of crime. In India as well, jails are almost exclusively filled with the poor. The civil justice system is hardly accessible to them. They are often victimized by lawyers, touts, and court staff. They are docket-excluded, a new type of untouchability. The language and the logic—and the colonial and feudal culture—of the judicial system are alien to them. It rarely takes cognisance of their needs and interests.

Their main concern, therefore, is to escape the attention of the justice system, criminal and civil. A landless Dalit person in the interior of Madhya Pradesh once gave me an insightful definition of a court from the perspective of the masses: “A court is a place where you are forcibly taken by the police to be punished; no one goes to a court.” In contrast, many lawyers and judges colloquially define a court as “a temple of justice where rights are protected.”

These sharply divergent visions mean that justice for one section is often injustice for another. Protecting the livelihood of traditional taxi and auto drivers from predatory pricing by corporate app-based taxi providers by imaginatively using the available tools of law to delay their incursion would be seen by the rich and by sections of the middle class as a failure of the judicial system, and possibly as also resulting in a downgrading of the “ease of doing business” measure. However, the masses would see such a judicial intervention as strong evidence of a good justice system. Although the conflict over competing visions of the nation and conflicting demands from social and economic segments have confined judicial reform of judicial administration mainly to “neutral” areas such as process reform, procedural law, technology, planning and court and case management, judge strength, and the workload of judges, there has been considerable improvement in these areas, and the judicial system has improved its performance.

Questions:

Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?

Options

(A) The judicial system reflects the same power relationships as those that exist in society.

(B) Access to the judicial system is determined more by a person’s economic status such as wealth and income, than by their social status, such as religion and caste.

(D) None of the above.

Which of the following statements is the author most likely to disagree with?

Options

(A) A truly representative democracy would ensure that the interests of the poor are also represented in the judicial system.

(B) The Law ensures equality both in text and in practice.

(C) The poor suffer most at the hands of lawyers and touts, compared to judges who might still pronounce judgments in their favour from time to time.

(D) All of the above.

What makes reform of judicial administration a ‘neutral’ area?

Options

(A) Persons across socio-economic strata agree on the need to reform judicial administration.

(B) There is consensus among political parties across the ideological and regional spectrum on reforms to judicial administration.

(D) Reform of judicial administration is mandated by the Constitution and thus lies beyond political considerations.

What is the central thesis of the above extract?

Options

(A) The practice of untouchability takes various forms in modern India.

(B) The imagination of justice for the rich and poor is vastly different.

(D) Protecting the livelihood of traditional taxi drivers is contrary to the goals of ease of doing business.

What does the author mean by ‘docket-excluded’ in the second paragraph?

Options

(A) The poor do not have easy access to the justice system.

(B) Courts do not list bail petitions of poor undertrial prisoners who populate the country’s jails.

(D) The rich are excluded from the country’s prisons, which are mostly populated by the poor.

Which of the following words best describes the experience of different segments of people with the justice system as described in the third paragraph?

Options

(A) Symbiotic

(B) Affective

(D) Inter-dependent

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2. Current Affairs, Including General Knowledge

In this section, you will receive passages of up to 450 words each, sourced from news articles, journalistic writings, and other non-fiction materials. The questions may test your understanding of legal information or concepts mentioned in or related to the passage. However, you will not need any prior legal knowledge beyond what is provided in the passage.

Key Focus Areas	Description
National/International News	Updates on key events, government policies, global politics.
Important Dates and Events	Notable events, days, and people from the past and present.
General Knowledge	Covers history, geography, science, and major developments.

Preparation Tips:

Follow daily news, focusing on major national and international events.
Use yearly current affairs compilations.
Review GK books that cover history, science, and politics.

Current Affairs, Including General Knowledge Passage From Previous Exam

Israel-Hamas Conflict

On 7th October 2023, an armed conflict broke out between Israel and Hamas-led Palestinian militants from the Gaza Strip after the latter launched a multi-pronged invasion of southern Israel. After clearing Hamas militants, the Israeli military retaliated by conducting an extensive aerial bombardment campaign on Gazan targets and followed up with a large-scale ground invasion of Gaza. More than 1,400 Israelis, mostly civilians, and more than 10,000 Palestinians have been killed in the fighting. Over 240 Israelis and foreign nationals were taken hostage and brought into the Gaza Strip.

The Hamas-led attack began in the morning of 7th October, as Palestinian militants in Gaza launched a barrage of over 5,000 rockets against Israeli cities and kibbutzim while some 3,000 Palestinian militants breached the Gaza-Israel barrier. Over 1,000 Israeli civilians were killed in more than a dozen massacres, including the Re’im music festival massacre, and military bases were attacked. Over 200 civilians and Israeli soldiers were captured or abducted and taken to the Gaza Strip. At least 44 countries, mostly from the Western world, characterized the massacres of civilians as terrorism. Hamas declared that the invasion was carried out in response to the ‘‘desecration of the Al-Aqsa Mosque’’, the Gaza Strip blockade, the construction of Israeli settlements, and Israeli settler violence against Palestinians in the West Bank.

Israel declared a state of war on 8th October, and its response to the attack has seen the most significant military escalation in the region since the Yom Kippur War. The current hostilities constitute the fifth war of the Gaza–Israel conflict, which is part of the broader Israeli–Palestinian conflict. In 2023, before the offensive started, an uptick in Israeli–Palestinian violence saw at least 247 Palestinians, 32 Israelis, and two foreigners killed. According to the Gaza Health Ministry, as of 6 November, over 10,000 Palestinians had been killed, including 79 UNRWA staff. Israel dropped a total of 6,000 bombs during the first six days of the conflict—nearly double the number of bombs dropped by the American-led CJTF—OIR in one month during the War against the Islamic State. There has been widespread killing of civilians, and human rights groups and a panel of United Nations special rapporteurs have accused both Israel and Hamas of war crimes.

Questions:

1. What was the reason for Hamas-led Palestinian militants’ attack on Israel?

Options

(A) To retaliate against Israeli settler violence against Palestinians

(B) In response to the desecration of the Western Wall

(D) To seek an end to the Gaza Strip blockade

2. What was the reaction of the international community to the killing of Israeli civilians?

Options

(A) Condemned as terrorism by 44 countries

(B) Ignored by most of the countries

(D) Praised as a necessary measure by 10 countries

3. Which of the following is not true about the historical context of the Israel-Hamas conflict?

Options

(A) The Palestinian refugees started settling under Ottoman rule in the late 19th Century

(B) Hamas emerged during the first Intifada in the late 1980s

(D) First Intifada was a Palestinian uprising against Israeli rule

4. What has been the response of the Israeli military to the Hamas-led attack?

Options

(A) Declared a state of war and launched a ground invasion

(B) Conducted an aerial bombardment campaign only

(D) Captured and imprisoned the militants responsible

5. What is the current hostilities known as in the Gaza-Israel conflict?

Options

(A) Sixth war

(B) Fifth war

(D) Fourth war

6. Which major war does the current Gaza-Israel conflict resemble?

Options

(A) Yom Kippur War

(B) Iraq War

(D) Gulf War

3. Legal Reasoning

In this section, you will be required to read passages of around 450 words each, which may present factual situations or scenarios involving legal issues, public policy debates, or moral and philosophical questions. While no prior legal knowledge is necessary to answer the questions, having a general awareness of current legal and moral issues will help you apply general principles or concepts to the given scenarios effectively.

Key Focus Areas	Description
Legal Principles	Knowledge of legal concepts related to contracts, torts, criminal law, etc.
Application to Scenarios	Apply these principles to hypothetical fact situations.
Identifying Core Legal Issues	Recognizing the central legal question or issue in a passage.

Preparation Tips:

Regularly practice legal reasoning questions.
Focus on understanding key legal concepts and terminologies.
Develop a logical approach to applying legal principles.

Legal Reasoning Passage From Previous Exam

Online Defamation in India

In India, the legal landscape surrounding online defamation is a subject of significant interest and debate. With the rise of social media and online platforms, cases of online defamation have become increasingly common. Defamation refers to making false statements about someone that harm their reputation. Online defamation includes defamatory statements made on the internet, including social media, blogs, forums, and other online platforms.

One critical aspect of online defamation is determining the liability of intermediaries, such as social media platforms or websites, for defamatory content posted by users. Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, provides a safe harbor for intermediaries, stating that they are not liable for third-party content if they act as intermediaries and follow due diligence in removing or disabling access to the content once notified.

However, determining whether an intermediary has fulfilled its due diligence obligations can be complex. The Indian judiciary has been actively interpreting this provision. One significant case is the Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, in which the Supreme Court clarified that intermediaries are required to act upon a valid court order or government directive for content removal, not upon private complaints.

The court also emphasized that the intermediaries should not take a proactive role in monitoring content, as this could potentially infringe on free speech. While the law provides a safe harbor, it does not absolve intermediaries from their responsibilities.

Online defamation cases often involve a balancing act between the right to freedom of expression and the right to reputation. The Indian legal system requires a careful examination of the content, context, and intent of the statements to determine whether they qualify as defamatory. Additionally, the plaintiff in an online defamation case must prove that the statement was false, damaging to their reputation, and made with a degree of fault, such as negligence or actual malice.

Questions:

1. What is the primary focus of the passage?

Options

(A) The rise of social media in India.

(B) The legal aspects of online defamation in India.

(D) The importance of free speech on the internet.

2. What is online defamation, as described in the passage?

Options

(A) Making harmful statements about someone in person.

(B) False statements made on the internet that harm someone’s reputation.

(D) A form of political activism.

3. What is the significance of Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, as mentioned in the passage?

Options

(A) It defines defamation laws in India.

(B) It provides safe harbor for intermediaries in cases of online defamation.

(D) It allows private complaints against online defamation.

4. According to the Supreme Court in the Shreya Singhal v. Union of India case, under what circumstances should intermediaries act in response to content removal?

Options

(A) Upon receiving a private complaint.

(B) Upon a valid court order or government directive.

(D) Only if the content is found to be defamatory.

5. How does the Indian legal system balance the Right to Freedom of Expression and the Right to Reputation in online defamation cases?

Options

(A) By favoring freedom of expression over reputation.

(B) By favoring reputation over freedom of expression.

(D) By absolving intermediaries of their responsibilities.

6. In an online defamation case, what must the plaintiff prove about the defamatory statement?

Options

(A) That it was political activism.

(B) That it was made with good intentions.

(D) That it was false, damaging to their reputation, and made with a degree of fault.

7. What is the role of intermediaries in the context of online defamation cases?

Options

(A) To actively monitor and censor content.

(B) To act upon private complaints for content removal.

(D) To encourage online defamation.

4. Logical Reasoning

The Logical Reasoning section of the UG-CLAT 2025 will consist of a series of short passages, each approximately 450 words in length. Following each passage, you will encounter one or more questions that will require you to:

Identify the arguments presented in the passage.
Recognize the premises and conclusions of the arguments.
Analyze patterns of reasoning and evaluate their effectiveness.
Apply logical principles to strengthen or weaken arguments.
Draw inferences from the given information.
Apply the principles of deductive and inductive reasoning.

Key Focus Areas	Description
Critical Reasoning	Evaluate arguments and infer conclusions.
Analytical Puzzles	Solve problems involving sequences, patterns, and logic.
Assumptions and Inferences	Identify assumptions and draw logical conclusions.

Preparation Tips:

Practice a variety of logical reasoning puzzles.
Focus on understanding how arguments are structured.
Work on identifying key information quickly.

Logical Reasoning Passage From Previous Exam

AI and Regulation in India

Students have been abuzz over how artificial intelligence tools can do their homework and programmers over how these can increase their productivity or take away their jobs. As much as digitization has transformed the country in recent years, there is a widespread feeling that at some point around the horizon, AI shall rejig everything in even more fundamental, fantastic, and frightening ways. This is why deciding how the coming changes should be regulated is very important. TRAI has made a strong case for an independent statutory authority to ensure the responsible development and use of AI in the country, a global agency along similar lines shall likely be pitched at the G20 leaders’ summit, and interestingly even American MNC Microsoft has floated a blueprint for AI governance in India. The great size and diversity of its “data points” make India of great interest to all developers of AI technologies.

But India is only at their receiving end, nowhere close to the US and China’s advances. Although lately, it is becoming obvious how much state censorship is encumbering China’s large language modeling, the country is still very much in the game with PhDs in fields related to AI, investments in AI chip hardware design, and domestic generative models like Wu Dao. The scientific accomplishments of India’s Chandrayaan mission have seen it being wooed for various international space collaborations. This promises spinoff technological benefits across Indian industry and is also geo-strategically useful. Likewise, it is only with sufficient AI prowess that India shall really get to play at the high table of global rulemaking for AI.

Knowing how much Indians’ future shall be shaped by generative AI needs matching efforts to create indigenous models. In this and at this stage, a proactive government role is key, rather than just waiting on some large corporation to do the needful. Missing this bus will, after all, be even more costly than missing the chip research one. Plus, GOI alone can push academia-industry collaborations with the necessary weight and urgency. This does not let other institutions off the hook. A US judge has rejected the copyright for an AI-generated artwork. Indian courts should start engaging with the broader issue of non-human agency rather than wait for precedence to be set elsewhere. Indian schools need to think beyond the ban-ChatGPT mindset. Let us lead instead of only being led.

Questions:

1. If the information in the passage above is correct, which of the following must necessarily be true?

Options

(A) AI regulation is the responsibility of the legislature alone.

(B) AI regulation is the responsibility of courts and can’t be addressed through standalone statutory rules.

(D) AI regulation is the domain of private industry.

2. Based on the author’s arguments, which of the following would result in weakening, rather than strengthening India’s position at the forefront of generative AI?

Options

(A) Investing in indigenous AI chip hardware design and domestic generative models.

(B) Exploring spinoff technological benefits with other scientific advancements like the Chandrayaan mission.

(D) Locally developing technologies such as indigenous AI models.

3. The author states that, “Missing this bus will after all be even more costly than missing the chip research one.” For this statement to be true, with which of the following statements about chip research must the author most likely agree?

Options

(A) India led chip research from its frontiers.

(B) India was right to leave regulation of chip industry and research to MNCs.

(D) The failure to respond to new developments in chip technology was a bigger loss than the potential failure to regulate generative AI.

4. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

Options

(A) The best way to deal with the advancement of AI is to leave its regulation to market forces.

(B) Government-driven control of AI is inefficient and shall promote red-tapism.

(D) Government-led initiatives of AI regulation and development lead to efficient outcomes.

5. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the main argument of the passage?

Options

(A) Governments that lead the initiative on regulating and responding to the advancement of AI tools benefit the most from them.

(B) Governments that don’t engage with generative AI and remain at its receiving end stay risk-averse with nothing to lose.

(C) Governments that actively incentivise MNCs to participate in AI governance make the most out of the advancements in the field.

(D) Governments that explore models of public-private partnership strike the right balance in regulating generative AI.

6. Based only on the author’s statement that “Indian courts should start engaging with the broader issue of non-human agency rather than wait for precedence to be set elsewhere,” which of the following would the author be most likely to agree with?

Options

(A) Courts should take the initiative by being innovative and laying down rules where no precedents exist.

(B) Courts should wait for precedents and in the meantime refrain from engaging with the challenges presented by generative AI.

(D) Precedents are the best possible safeguard against arbitrary decision-making.

5. Quantitative Techniques

The Quantitative Techniques section of the UG-CLAT 2025 will feature short sets of facts, propositions, or textual representations of numerical data, followed by a series of questions. You will need to extract relevant information from these passages or questions and apply mathematical operations to solve them.

Key Focus Areas	Description
Arithmetic	Percentages, ratios, averages, profit and loss, etc.
Data Interpretation	Analyze graphs, charts, and tables to extract information.
Algebra and Geometry	Basic high school-level questions on algebra and geometry.

Preparation Tips:

Solve practice questions on basic arithmetic.
Work on data interpretation problems with charts and tables.
Review key concepts in algebra and geometry.

Logical Reasoning Passage From Previous Year

A survey was conducted about the population of a particular region having working

population of three lacs and information was collected about self-employed persons, casual

wage workers, regular salaries employees of both urban and rural areas of the region.

Self-employment is a key source of income in both rural and urban areas but it is more

prevalent in rural areas (56% of the rural population) than in urban areas (40% of the urban

population). Rural population was 48% of the total population. Regular salaried workers

in urban areas were 48% of the urban population whereas in rural areas, regular salaried

workers constituted 12% of the rural population. During the survey, the casual wage workers

were found to be more common in rural areas than in urban areas. Casual wage workers

in rural areas were 32% of the rural population whereas it was 12% of the urban population in urban areas.

Questions:

1. If urban population of the region increased from 52% to 56% and percentage of self-employed in urban region remains same, then number of self-employed people in urban areas are:

Options

(A) 66840

(B) 68640

(D) 67200

2. What is the total number of regular salaried employees of the region?

Options

(A) 90216

(B) 91260

(D) 96210

3. What is the percentage of regular salaried employees in rural areas corresponding to the number of casual wage workers in urban areas?

Options

(A) 72.3%

(B) 79.8%

(D) 92.3%

4. If 60% of the total working population of the region were self-employed in rural areas and 40% of total population were self-employed in urban areas, then what is the ratio of rural self-employed to urban self-employed?

Options

(A) 2:3

(B) 3:2

(D) 18:13

5. By what percentage the number of self-employed workers in rural areas is more than the number of self-employed workers in urban areas?

Options

(A) 29.23

(B) 33.24

(D) 34.32

6. What is the ratio of urban and rural working population?

Options

(A) 12:13

(B) 11:12

(D) 03:08

To access the answers to these questions, you can take the detailed CLAT Mock Test 2025 from Hitbullseye, which provides real exam passages and answers upon test completion. And also, check the latest article on the CLAT 2024 Question Paper & Answer Key, which provides the last 6 years of question papers and answer keys.